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Salesforce Development-Lifecycle-and-Deployment-Architect Certification Exam is designed for professionals who specialize in managing the development and deployment of Salesforce applications. Salesforce Certified Development Lifecycle and Deployment Architect certification verifies the skills and knowledge of candidates in designing, building, and deploying scalable and sustainable Salesforce solutions using best practices and industry standards. Development-Lifecycle-and-Deployment-Architect exam tests the candidates on various aspects of the Salesforce development lifecycle, including project planning, requirements gathering, design, development, testing, and deployment.

Salesforce Development-Lifecycle-and-Deployment-Architect Certification Exam is a challenging and comprehensive exam that tests the skills and knowledge of professionals working in the Salesforce development and deployment space. Earning this certification demonstrates a commitment to staying up-to-date with the latest best practices and technologies and can open up new career opportunities in the Salesforce ecosystem.

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Salesforce Certified Development Lifecycle and Deployment Architect Sample Questions (Q121-Q126):

NEW QUESTION # 121
Universal Containers (UC) is embarking on a large program of work, with different projects and different vendors. UC created a center of excellence (COE) that is struggling with scope creep between the different projects.
What role should the architect suggest be added to the COE?

  • A. Change managers
  • B. Scrum master
  • C. Product owner
  • D. Release managers

Answer: C

Explanation:
A product owner is responsible for defining the scope and prioritizing the backlog of the project. A product owner can help the COE manage the scope creep between the different projects by aligning the business goals and ensuring the value delivery. A scrum master, a release manager, and a change manager are not directly involved in scope management.


NEW QUESTION # 122
A team has completed a sprint and intends to deploy these changes after business approval, but they will immediately begin the next sprint.
What strategy should an architect recommend?

  • A. Using Git, create a release branch from the develop branch. All fixes must be made in the release branch. After deployment, merge release with develop.
  • B. Commit upcoming changes to the features branch without merging into the develop branch. Deploy from the develop branch and then merge new sprint features into the develop branch.
  • C. The first task of the new sprint must be the deployment approval. After that, the other tasks of the sprint can be performed in the environments and Git.
  • D. Migrate the current code to the UAT sandbox. Begin new sprint development in the Dev sandbox. Make fixes in the UAT environment and deploy UAT for production after business approval.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
The architect should recommend using Git to create a release branch from the develop branch. All fixes must be made in the release branch. After deployment, merge release with develop. This strategy allows the team to isolate the changes that are ready for deployment from the changes that are still in progress. It also ensures that the fixes are applied to both the release and the develop branches. The other options do not follow the best practices of Git branching and merging.


NEW QUESTION # 123
What are two advantages of using an Agile Project Management tool? Choose 2 answers

  • A. Increased visibility into sprint and project status
  • B. Improve governance with gate steps in development
  • C. Better relationships with business stakeholders
  • D. Consolidate project artifacts to a common repository

Answer: A,D

Explanation:
Explanation
A and C are the advantages of using an Agile Project Management tool, as they provide visibility into the project progress and status, and consolidate the project artifacts in a common repository. B is not an advantage of using an Agile Project Management tool, as it depends on the communication and collaboration skills of the team members and stakeholders. D is not an advantage of using an Agile Project Management tool, as it is more related to the governance framework and methodology of the project


NEW QUESTION # 124
Universal Containers (UC) is considering updating their Salesforce Release Management process. Which three best practices should UC consider for Release Management? Choose 3 answers

  • A. Maintain a pre/post deployment checklist for each release.
  • B. Publish a release calendar for each phase of the release.
  • C. Release sign-off is only required for Production.
  • D. Design the right sandbox strategy for the release.
  • E. Regression testing is mandatory for each release.

Answer: A,D,E

Explanation:
Designing the right sandbox strategy for the release is a best practice, as it helps to ensure the quality and consistency of the code/configuration across different environments. Regression testing is mandatory for each release, as it helps to verify that the existing functionality is not broken by the new changes. Maintaining a pre
/post deployment checklist for each release is a best practice, as it helps to track the tasks and dependencies for each deployment. Release sign-off is not only required for Production, but also for other environments such as UAT and Staging. Publishing a release calendar for each phase of the release is not a best practice, as it may change due to unforeseen circumstances and create confusion.


NEW QUESTION # 125
Universal Containers CUC) is working with Salesforce CPQ, which uses configuration SObjects to drive business logic.
What are two best practice recommendations an architect should propose to allow UC to deploy CPQ features as part of their CI/CD process?
Choose 2 answers

  • A. Use a third-party product.
  • B. Build an Apex framework to deploy CPQ records.
  • C. Use data loader to deploy CSV files.
  • D. Use an open source SFDX plugin and version control.

Answer: B,C


NEW QUESTION # 126
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